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EMP 200
Branon
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EMP 200 Test 2
Test
Handout
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Summer 2006
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1.
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All of the following would be expected in a pediatric patient
with an airway problem EXCEPT:
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A:
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See-sawing.
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B:
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Retractions.
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C:
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Nasal flaring.
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D:
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Increasing heart rate.
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2.
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Which of the following is a common lower airway issue in the
pediatric patient?
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A:
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Bronchiolitis.
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B:
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Emphysema.
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C:
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Epiglottitis.
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D:
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Croup.
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3.
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You have a newborn who is blue in the hand but pink centrally,
pulse is 80, respirations are 10, moving weakly, and has a slight facial
grimace when you flick the feet. What would be the APGAR score for this
newborn?
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4.
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What does the first A in APGAR represent?
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A:
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Airway.
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B:
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Activity.
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C:
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Alertness.
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D:
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Appearance.
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5.
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A
Glasgow coma scale of 10
for a pediatric patient would represent which of the following?
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A:
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Mild head injury.
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B:
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Moderate head injury.
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C:
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Severe head injury.
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D:
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Brain death.
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6.
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After identifying an infant in cardiac arrest, which of the
following should you do NEXT?
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A:
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Go phone 911.
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B:
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Do 1 minute of CPR; then call 911.
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C:
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Perform compressions and ventilations at a ratio of 15:2.
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D:
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Defibrillate the infant at 200 joules.
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7.
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Approximately how many births result in SIDS death?
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A:
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2 in 1000.
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B:
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20 in 1000.
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C:
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50 in 1000.
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D:
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100 in 1000.
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8.
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Approximately how many children are killed every year from
trauma?
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A:
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5,000.
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B:
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25,000.
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C:
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100,000.
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D:
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1,000,000.
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9.
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At 5 liters per minute and 1/2 inch away, blow-by oxygen will
yield approximately what concentration percentage of oxygen?
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A:
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33%.
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B:
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40%.
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C:
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50%.
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D:
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80%.
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10.
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Bradycardia in the neonate is
MOST often a sign of which of the following?
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A:
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Hypothermia.
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B:
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Hypovolemia.
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C:
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Hypoxia.
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D:
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Meconium.
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11.
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Called to a local school you are presented with a 2-year-old
45 pound female in cardiac arrest. Your cardiac monitor shows ventricular
tachycardia. There is a weak carotid pulse present. Which of the following
should you do FIRST?
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A:
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Administer 1.0 mg/kg lidocaine.
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B:
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Defibrillate at 40 joules.
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C:
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Cardiovert at 10-20 joules.
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D:
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Cardiovert at 20-40 joules.
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12.
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Dispatch sends you for a transfer to a neonatal intensive care
unit for a newborn delivered 6 weeks early with some respiratory
compromise. How should this neonate be transported?
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A:
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In an isolette.
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B:
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In an infant car set.
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C:
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On the stretcher with padding.
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D:
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In a pediatric immobilization device.
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13.
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During a field delivery, a mother informs you that she has
recently used Vicodin for back pain she's been
having. You decide to give naloxone to the
newborn after delivery. Which of the following is the appropriate dose?
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A:
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0.4-1.0 mg.
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B:
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1.0-2.0 mg/kg.
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C:
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0.1 mg
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D:
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0.1 mg/kg
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14.
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During transport of a newborn, the patient's heart rate slows
to 56 per minute. Capillary refill is delayed and the patient is
increasingly lethargic. Which of the following should you do FIRST?
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A:
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Begin assisting ventilations.
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B:
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Administer 0.1 mg/kg atropine
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C:
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Administer 0.02 mg/kg atropine.
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D:
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Administer 0.01 mg/kg epinephrine
1:10 000.
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15.
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During transport, a newborn begins to have excessive
salivation and chewing motions. This is consistent with which of the
following?
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A:
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Tonic seizures.
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B:
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Febrile seizures.
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C:
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Myoclonic seizures.
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D:
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Subtle seizures.
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16.
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For which of the following reasons is shock a more unusual
occurrence in pediatric versus adult patients?
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A:
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The pediatric patient has a proportionately larger blood
volume present.
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B:
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The pediatric patient has greater epinephrine stores.
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C:
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The pediatric peripheral blood vessels constrict more
efficiently.
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D:
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The pediatric patient thermoregulates
better.
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17.
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For which of the following would you immediately initiate ventilatory assistance in the newborn?
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A:
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A newborn with bowel sounds present in the chest and
respiratory fatigue.
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B:
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A newborn with particulate meconium
in the oropharynx.
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C:
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A newborn who does not respond to
warming, stimulation, and blow-by oxygen.
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D:
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A newborn not taking its first breath until 12 seconds
immediately after delivery.
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18.
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Intraosseous infusion would NOT
be preferred in children greater than what year of age?
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19.
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Meconium staining occurs in
approximately what percentage of deliveries?
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A:
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Less than 1%.
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B:
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5%.
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C:
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10-15%.
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D:
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25%.
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20.
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Regarding falls, which of the following anatomical regions is
most often injured in pediatric patients?
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A:
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Thorax.
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B:
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Extremities.
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C:
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Head.
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D:
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Abdomen.
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21.
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Respiratory distress in the pediatric patient is BEST defined
as which of the following?
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A:
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The complete cessation of breathing.
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B:
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The mildest form of respiratory impairment.
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C:
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Noticeable accessory muscle use on inspiration.
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D:
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Respiratory impairment where the demands of the body for
oxygen are not met.
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22.
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Stable infants and toddlers should be assessed which of the
following ways?
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A:
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From head to toe.
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B:
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By visualization only.
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C:
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From toe to head.
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D:
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Obtaining vital signs first.
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23.
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The Emergency Medical Services for Children (EMSC) is an
agency of which of the following federal agencies?
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A:
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Department of Transportation.
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B:
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Department of Health & Human Services.
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C:
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Occupational Health & Safety Administration.
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D:
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The National Trauma Symposium.
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24.
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When applying suction with a meconium
aspirator, suction should always be less than which of the following?
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A:
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30 cm/H20.
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B:
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50 cm/H2O.
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C:
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75 cm/H2O.
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D:
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100 cm/H2O.
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25.
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When intubating an infant, you
should utilize which of the following laryngoscope blades?
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A:
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Macintosh.
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B:
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Curved.
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C:
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Miller.
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D:
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Stylette.
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26.
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When should a newborn first be suctioned?
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A:
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Immediately after the umbilical cord is cut.
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B:
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After the baby has completely delivered.
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C:
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As soon as the newborn's head delivers.
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D:
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After the 5 minute APGAR score calculation.
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27.
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Which of the following is NOT true concerning SIDS?
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A:
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It is more common in fall and winter months.
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B:
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A minor percentage may be abuse related.
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C:
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It is more common in females than males.
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D:
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The peak incidence occurs between 2-4 months.
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28.
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Which of the following alternative advanced airways can be
used in the pediatric patient?
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A:
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Esophageal obturator airway.
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B:
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Laryngeal mask airway.
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C:
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Pharyngeotracheal airway.
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D:
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Esophageal Tracheal Combitube.
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29.
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Which of the following are the MOST appropriate times for
evaluation of the newborn utilizing the APGAR scale?
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A:
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Immediately after birth and again after 24 hours.
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B:
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At 1 and 5 minutes following delivery.
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C:
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Immediately after the umbilical cord is cut and again at 10
minutes.
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D:
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At 30 and 60 seconds following delivery.
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30.
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Which of the following BEST differentiates primary from
secondary apnea?
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A:
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Stimulation and oxygen will usually stimulate respirations
in secondary apnea.
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B:
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Stimulation and oxygen will usually stimulate respirations
in primary apnea.
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C:
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Ventilatory assistance is
almost always necessary in primary apnea.
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D:
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Secondary apnea will progress to death unless resuscitation
is initiated.
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31.
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Which of the following factors has been shown to produce low
birth weight newborns?
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A:
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Gestational diabetes.
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B:
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Trauma during pregnancy.
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